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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q113-Q118):

NEW QUESTION # 113
A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, presents for her 1st antenatal visit. She states she is at 26 weeks' gestation and is healthy. On abdominal examination, her fundus is palpated at the umbilicus. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?

A. Dating error
B. Partial hydatidiform mole
C. Bicornuate uterus
D. Oligohydramnios
E. Intrauterine growth restriction

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
At 20 weeks' gestation, the uterine fundus typically reaches the umbilicus. If the fundal height is lower than expected at a stated gestational age of 26 weeks, the most likely explanation-especially with no prior care- is a dating error.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics:
"Fundal height at the umbilicus corresponds to ~20 weeks. In women lacking early prenatal care, dating errors are common causes of fundal height discrepancy." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Routine Antenatal Care):
"Candidates must interpret fundal height and reconcile discrepancies with gestational age." IUGR and oligohydramnios are possible but require imaging confirmation. Bicornuate uterus may cause fundal shape anomalies but not significant dating discrepancy. A mole (D) would increase, not decrease, size.
-

NEW QUESTION # 114
A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 20-minute history of difficulty breathing that started during a school assembly. She has had similar symptoms 3 times in the last 2 weeks. These episodes develop rapidly and resolve gradually over several minutes. She reports tingling in her fingers and toes. On examination, her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure
120/80 mm Hg
Heart rate
100/min
Respiratory rate
22/min
Oxygen saturation on room air
95%
Temperature
36.9 °C, orally
Apart from mildly dilated pupils, her examination is otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pericarditis
B. Cocaine use
C. Asthma
D. Panic attack
E. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

Answer: D

Explanation:
This teenager presents with acute-onset dyspnea, paresthesias, and normal physical findings, consistent with a panic attack. Panic attacks often mimic cardiopulmonary pathology but are marked by symptoms like hyperventilation, tingling in the extremities, palpitations, and subjective air hunger with normal vitals and oxygenation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry:
"Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort, accompanied by somatic symptoms such as dyspnea, paresthesias, tachycardia, and fear of losing control." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Anxiety Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize panic attacks based on clinical features and differentiate them from cardiopulmonary conditions." Normal O2 saturation and physical exam rule out asthma or pericarditis. Cocaine use would present with more systemic toxicity. PSVT would cause consistent tachycardia.

NEW QUESTION # 115
You are examining a newborn in the delivery room. He was born at full term by spontaneous vaginal delivery.
On examination, he is active, and his vital signs are within normal range. His head circumference is at the third percentile, with height and weight at the 10th percentile. Auscultation of his chest is clear with normal cardiovascular examination findings. The abdomen is protuberant with a liver edge palpable at 4 cm below the costal margin and mild splenomegaly. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Cephalic molding
B. Congenital viral infection
C. Lipid storage disease
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. Trisomy 21

Answer: B

Explanation:
Microcephaly, intrauterine growth restriction, hepatosplenomegaly, and normal vital signs in a term newborn strongly suggest congenital viral infection (e.g., CMV, toxoplasmosis, rubella).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Congenital Infections:
"Signs of congenital TORCH infections include microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly, and growth restriction.
Early identification is key."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Infectious Disease:
"Candidates must recognize signs suggestive of congenital infections and distinguish from genetic or structural abnormalities." Cephalic molding (A) is benign and resolves spontaneously. Lipid storage diseases (B) are not present at birth. Cystic fibrosis (C) does not cause microcephaly or hepatosplenomegaly at birth. Trisomy 21 (D) has distinct dysmorphic features not described here.

NEW QUESTION # 116
A 19-year-old woman presents to the office. She is a new mother. She shares that she does not intend to vaccinate her son. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A. Provide education on the risks and benefits of vaccination.
B. Contact child protection services.
C. Explore with the patient her rationale for not vaccinating her child.
D. Tell the patient you cannot follow her in your practice but will refer her to a colleague.
E. Ask to speak with the patient's parents.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When encountering vaccine hesitancy, the first and most effective step is to open a non-judgmental conversation and explore the patient's reasons. This helps build trust and tailor subsequent education and counseling.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health and Preventive Medicine, Immunization:
"Addressing vaccine hesitancy requires understanding parental concerns. Begin with open-ended questions to identify underlying beliefs and information gaps." MCCQE1 Objectives - Preventive Medicine > Immunization:
"Candidates must demonstrate effective communication with vaccine-hesitant parents, beginning with eliciting their rationale before providing evidence-based recommendations." Jumping to education (B) or punitive measures (C, D) may close communication. The patient is an adult; speaking with her parents (E) violates her autonomy.

NEW QUESTION # 117
A 20-year-old nulligravid woman presents with severe pain during menstruation. She is unable to take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and is adamant about not taking any hormonal therapy. She has questions about non-medicinal therapeutic options. Which one of the following recommendations is the most appropriate?

A. Progesterone-releasing intrauterine device
B. High-frequency transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
C. Laparoscopic uterine nerve ablation (LUNA)
D. Massage therapy
E. Spinal manipulation

Answer: B

Explanation:
TENS has been shown to be effective for managing primary dysmenorrhea when pharmacological options are contraindicated or refused. It works by interfering with pain signal transmission and increasing endorphin levels.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Dysmenorrhea:
"High-frequency TENS is effective in managing primary dysmenorrhea and can be considered when NSAIDs or hormonal therapies are not acceptable to the patient." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Menstrual Disorders:
"Candidates must be aware of non-pharmacological interventions for dysmenorrhea, including TENS and heat therapy." Options D and E involve hormonal or surgical intervention. Spinal manipulation and massage (B and C) lack consistent evidence for dysmenorrhea relief.

NEW QUESTION # 118
......

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